Saturday, October 24, 2009

Virgin Mary taken in Prima Nocta

First, I am making no claim to the accuracy or historicy of the idea of Prima Nocta (e.g. Braveheart; jus primae noctis is invoked by Edward Longshanks (Edward I of England) in an attempt to breed the Scots out.) Many historians dispute the practice happened, was limited, or even happened at all. see wikipedia:

Instead, I am investigating the concept with regards to Matthew 1:18-20
His mother Mary was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be with child through the Holy Spirit. 19Because Joseph her husband was a righteous man and did not want to expose her to public disgrace, he had in mind to divorce her quietly.

20But after he had considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, "Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit.

Based on the above quotation. Mary had not yet been with a man. She was planning on marrying Joseph. But before that marriage could happen or be consumated, another male stepped in and impregnated her to bear his offspring.

So here is my question. Could Mary have denied this, should this have been denied by states right as an illegal act. Should a all powerful being, the creator of Mary, have relations with one of his offspring? Would this be statutory rape - A 6000 year old with a 16 year old?
There are all kinds of interesting thoughts to ponder on this passage? Which ones are interesting to you?

What are your thoughts?

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